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Hey all,

I'll start off by saying I'm not a medical professional but rather a lawyer. I am representing (pro bono) a family friend--an MRI tech--who is facing discipline by a federal agency for allegedly failing to follow policy with respect to 2 alleged extravasations. I won't get into the details but my questions relate to the alleged extravasations. Unfortunately, my friend is not as helpful as he could be with respect to his own defense, so I've had to research a lot on my own.

Here's my understanding:

1. Patient 1 was injected with 4.5cc of gadavist + 15cc saline (power-injected) for MRI of liver. Patient 1 was approx 180-190 lbs male. Apparently patient received reduced dose due to poor kidney function (reduced GFR)

2. Patient 2 was injected with 10cc of gadavist for MRI of pelvis (hand-injected). Patient 2 was approx 200 lbs male.

The contrast did not appear on the MRIs for either patient.

The federal agency is claiming that the lack of contrast on the MRIs is conclusive proof that extravasations occurred. Note that both patients were asymptomatic.

Is their contention accurate, or are there myriad reasons why contrast might not appear on an MRI? Off the top of my head, and without being a medical professional: insufficient quantity of contrast, reduced cardiac output delaying organ infusion? Are these actually alternative explanations? Are there others?

Family friend says he noticed the lack of contrast for the liver MRI and notified his supervisor, but that he didn't notice the lack of contrast on the pelvis MRI. He gave me an explanation about how the contrast only appears in the bones or joints and so is harder to spot. Not totally sure I understand his point, but I also want to obtain verification. I'm worried that the agency might argue incompetence or something like that about not noticing the lack of contrast in the pelvic MRI. Are there good reasons why a tech might not notice? Is it normal for errors to occasionally occur?

Would really appreciate some pointers here. Thanks!

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